NEUROANATOMIA I

Bogdan Koczanowski Ph.D.
1. During embryonic development, which of the following brain vesicles will form the cerebrum?

a) diencephalon
b) metencephalon
c) myelencephalon
d) telencephalon
e) mesencephalon
2. Which of the following links the cerebral hemispheres with the brain stem?

a) medulla oblongata
b) pons
c) diencephalon
d) cerebellum
e) mesencephalon
3. The walls of the diencephalon form the

a) brain stem.
b) myelencephalon.
c) thalamus.
d) mesencephalon.
e) hypothalamus.
4. The cerebellum and pons are derived from the

a) diencephalon.
b) telencephalon.
c) mesencephalon.
d) metencephalon.
e) myelencephalon.
5. Visual and auditory information are processed by the

a) pons.
b) medulla oblongata.
c) cerebellum.
d) diencephalon.
e) mesencephalon.
6. The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the

a) medulla oblongata.
b) mesencephalon.
c) pons.
d) thalamus.
e) diencephalon.
7. Major centers concerned with autonomic control of breathing, blood pressure, heart rate, and digestive activities are located in the

a) medulla oblongata.
b) diencephalon.
c) pons.
d) cerebellum.
e) mesencephalon.
8. A neural cortex is found on the surface of the

a) cerebrum.
b) pons.
c) cerebellum.
d) all of the above
e) A and C only
9. Which of the following represents a link between the nervous and endocrine systems?

a) pons
b) hypothalamus
c) cerebellum
d) medulla oblongata
e) cerebrum
10. The term "higher brain centers" refers to nuclei, centers, and cortical areas of the

a) diencephalon.
b) cerebellum.
c) cerebrum.
d) all of the above
e) A and C only
11. The thin partition that separates the first and second ventricles is the

a) septum insula.
b) falx cerebri.
c) septum pellucidum.
d) interventricular foramina.
e) cerebral aqueduct.
12. The lateral ventricles communicate with the third ventricle through the

a) medulla oblongata.
b) cerebral aqueduct.
c) mesencephalic aqueduct.
d) interventricular foramina.
e) aqueduct of Sylvius.
13. The diencephalic chamber is called the

a) fourth ventricle.
b) lateral ventricle.
c) third ventricle.
d) mesencephalic aqueduct.
e) second ventricle.
14. The third and fourth ventricles are linked by the

a) mesencephalic aqueduct.
b) tentorium cerebelli.
c) central canal.
d) medulla oblongata.
e) interventricular foramina.
15. The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the

a) fourth.
b) first.
c) second.
d) third.
e) lateral.
16. The dural sinuses are located in the

a) dural folds.
b) arachnoid.
c) dura mater.
d) pia mater.
e) tentorium cerebelli.
17. What structure is highly vascular and closely adheres to the surface of the brain?

a) choroid plexus
b) pia mater
c) cranial plexus
d) arachnoid
e) dura mater
18. What contains a delicate network of collagen and elastin fibers through which cerebrospinal fluid circulates?

a) pia mater
b) subdural space
c) falx cerebri
d) dural sinus
e) subarachnoid space
19. Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

a) acts as a transport medium for nutrients
b) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues
c) provides a medium for nerve impulse transmission
d) acts as a transport medium for chemical messengers
e) provides buoyant support for the brain
20. Which of the following is the site of cerebrospinal fluid production?

a) insula
b) tentorium cerebelli
c) choroid plexus
d) falx cerebri
e) dural sinus
21. Cerebrospinal fluid

a) has exactly the same composition as blood plasma.
b) is secreted by ependymal cells.
c) is formed by a passive process.
d) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed.
e) both A and D
22. Diffusion across the arachnoid villi returns excess CSF to the

a) central canal.
b) arterial circulation.
c) third ventricle.
d) fourth ventricle.
e) venous circulation.
23. Cerebrospinal fluid enters the subarachnoid space by way of the

a) aqueduct of sylvius.
b) falx cerebri.
c) dural sinus.
d) lateral and median apertures.
e) interventricular foramina.
24. Excess cerebrospinal fluid is drained into the

a) jugular veins.
b) dural sinus.
c) cranial vein.
d) superior sagittal sinus.
e) falx cerebri.
25. Which of the following is not true about the blood-brain barrier?

a) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries.
b) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions.
c) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus.
d) It selectively secretes glycine into the interstitial fluid of the brain.
e) It is generally permeable to lipid-soluble compounds.
26. A fold of dura mater that projects between the cerebral hemispheres in the midsagittal plane is called the

a) dural sinus.
b) choroid plexus.
c) tentorium cerebelli.
d) falx cerebelli.
e) falx cerebri.
27. The nucleus gracilis

a) is located in the pons.
b) connects the medulla to the pons.
c) passes somatic sensory information to the thalamus.
d) passes motor information to the cerebellum.
e) is the origin of 5 cranial nerves.
28. Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain balance and equilibrium are functions of the

a) cerebellum.
b) medulla.
c) pons.
d) mesencephalon.
e) cerebrum.
29. The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the

a) vermis.
b) arbor vitae.
c) flocculonodular lobe.
d) pyramid.
e) folia.
30. The white matter of the cerebellum forms the

a) arbor vitae.
b) vermis.
c) folia.
d) flocculonodular lobe.
e) pyramid.
31. The fiber tract that links the cerebellum with the pons is the

a) middle cerebellar peduncle.
b) transverse fibers.
c) inferior cerebellar peduncle.
d) projection fibers.
e) superior cerebellar peduncle.
32. Auditory information from the medulla is received by the

a) superior colliculi.
b) substantia nigra.
c) cerebral peduncles.
d) inferior colliculi.
e) red nuclei.
33. The area of the mesencephalon that is involved with the maintenance of muscle tone and posture is the

a) superior colliculi.
b) cerebral peduncles.
c) red nuclei.
d) tectum.
e) inferior colliculi.
34. Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the

a) corpora quadrigemina.
b) inferior colliculi.
c) superior colliculi.
d) tegmenta.
e) cerebral peduncles.
35. Motor nuclei that control reflex movements associated with eating are located in the

a) fornix.
b) amygdaloid body.
c) cingulate gyrus.
d) hippocampus.
e) mammillary bodies.
36. Stimulation of the reticular formation results in

a) decreased cerebral function.
b) sleep.
c) increased consciousness.
d) coma.
e) none of the above
37. The ________ acts as a switching and relay center for integration of conscious and unconscious sensory and motor pathways.

a) mesencephalon
b) medulla
c) diencephalon
d) pons
e) cerebellum
38. Which of the following is (artrue of the epithalamus?

a) contains the choroid plexus and pineal gland
b) is located on the roof of the diencephalon
c) contains neural tissue
d) all of the above
e) A and B only
39. The ________ receive visual information from the eyes by way of the optic tracts.

a) medial geniculates
b) pulvinar
c) paraventricular nuclei
d) lateral geniculates
e) supraoptic nuclei
40. The ________ relay auditory information to the auditory cortex.

a) lateral geniculates
b) paraventricular nuclei
c) medial geniculates
d) pulvinar
e) supraoptic nuclei
41. The ________ integrates sensory information for projection to the association areas of the cerebral cortex.

a) pulvinar
b) lateral geniculates
c) paraventricular nuclei
d) supraoptic nuclei
e) medial geniculates
42. All of the following are true of the efferent tracts from the hypothalamus, except:

a) coordinate activities of the nervous and endocrine systems.
b) responsible for integrating sensory stimuli.
c) control autonomic function.
d) produce emotions and behavioral drives.
e) control involuntary motor activities.
43. The mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus

a) secrete antidiuretic hormone.
b) secrete oxytocin.
c) regulate body temperature.
d) control feeding reflexes.
e) control heart rate and blood pressure.
44. The tectum of the mesencephalon contains the

a) red nuclei.
b) substantia nigra.
c) corpora quadrigemina.
d) tegmental nuclei.
e) cerebral peduncles.
45. Visual input from the lateral geniculates of the thalamus are received by the

a) red nuclei.
b) substantia nigra.
c) cerebral peduncles.
d) inferior colliculi.
e) superior colliculi.
46. Each of the following is a component of the limbic system, except the

a) globus pallidus.
b) amygdaloid body.
c) fornix.
d) cingulate gyrus.
e) hippocampus.
47. All of the following are true of the limbic system, except:

a) functions in maintaining homeostasis during dehydration and hemorrhaging.
b) consists of nuclei that lie between the border of the cerebrum and the diencephalon.
c) functions in emotions, learning and memory.
d) contains both cerebral and diencephalic components.
e) provides a link between the conscious, intellectual functions of the cerebral cortex and the unconscious functions of the brain stem.
48. The ________ appear(s) to be important in learning and the storage of long term memories.

a) cingulate gyrus
b) mammillary bodies
c) hippocampus
d) amygdaloid body
e) fornix
49. A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the

a) mammillary bodies.
b) fornix.
c) hippocampus.
d) cingulate gyrus.
e) amygdaloid body.
50. The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the

a) central sulcus.
b) lateral sulcus.
c) postcentral sulcus.
d) parieto-occipital sulcus.
e) longitudinal fissure.
51. Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are

a) gyri.
b) fissures.
c) lobes.
d) sulci.
e) sinuses.
52. The area anterior to the central sulcus is the

a) insula.
b) frontal lobe.
c) occipital lobe.
d) temporal lobe.
e) parietal lobe.
53. The inferior border of the frontal lobe is marked by the

a) insula.
b) lateral sulcus.
c) longitudinal fissure.
d) parietal-occipital sulcus.
e) central sulcus.
54. The region of the cerebral cortex inferior to the lateral sulcus is the

a) insula.
b) parietal lobe.
c) temporal lobe.
d) frontal lobe.
e) occipital lobe.
55. The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the

a) occipital lobe.
b) frontal lobe.
c) temporal lobe.
d) insula.
e) parietal lobe.
56. The primary motor cortex is located in the region of the

a) postcentral gyrus.
b) precentral gyrus.
c) corpus callosum.
d) arcuate gyrus.
e) insula.
57. The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex.

a) auditory
b) primary motor
c) olfactory
d) primary sensory
e) visual
58. The visual cortex is located in the

a) parietal lobe.
b) temporal lobe.
c) occipital lobe.
d) frontal lobe.
e) insula.
59. The auditory cortex is located in the

a) frontal lobe.
b) temporal lobe.
c) parietal lobe.
d) insula.
e) occipital lobe.
60. Regions of the brain that are involved in interpreting data or coordinating motor responses are called ________ areas.

a) processing
b) commissural
c) association
d) somesthetic
e) sensory
61. The region of the brain that is involved in conscious thought and intellectual function as well as processing somatic sensory and motor information is the

a) medulla.
b) pons.
c) mesencephalon.
d) cerebrum.
e) diencephalon.
62. Abstract intellectual functions such as predicting the consequences of a particular response occur in the

a) postcentral gyrus.
b) premotor cortex.
c) prefrontal cortex.
d) corpus callosum.
e) precentral gyrus.
63. The corpus callosum is composed of

a) commissural fibers.
b) projection fibers.
c) longitudinal fasciculi.
d) association fibers.
e) arcuate fibers.
64. The internal capsule of the cerebrum is composed of

a) projection fibers.
b) longitudinal fasciculi.
c) commissural fibers.
d) association fibers.
e) arcuate fibers.
65. Lying within each hemisphere beneath the floor of the lateral ventricle are the

a) cerebral nuclei.
b) auditory cortex.
c) anterior commissures.
d) visual cortex.
e) motor association areas.
66. Each of the following are part of the cerebral nuclei except the

a) lentiform nucleus.
b) caudate nucleus.
c) globus pallidus.
d) putamen.
e) hippocampus.
67. The ________ is located at the tip of the tail of the caudate nucleus.

a) claustrum
b) putamen
c) amygdaloid body
d) corpus striatum
e) globus pallidus
68. The putamen and globus pallidus are frequently considered to be subdivisions of the

a) corpus striatum.
b) caudate nucleus.
c) limbic system.
d) claustrum.
e) lentiform nucleus.
69. The simplest reflexes are mediated at the level of the

a) mesencephalon.
b) cerebellum.
c) cerebrum.
d) medulla.
e) spinal cord.
70. The highest levels of information processing occur in the

a) spinal cord.
b) mesencephalon.
c) cerebrum.
d) medulla.
e) cerebellum.
71. Higher order functions

a) involve complex interactions between areas of the cortex and other areas of the brain.
b) are subject to adjustments and modification over time.
c) involve both conscious and unconscious information processing.
d) all of the above
e) B and C only
72. The cerebral nuclei

a) control respiration and blood pressure.
b) plan and coordinate voluntary muscle activity.
c) control the secretions of the pituitary gland.
d) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking.
e) coordinate sensory information.
73. The general interpretive area

a) is the primary area affected by strokes.
b) allows us to interpret what is read or heard.
c) is responsible for predicting future consequences.
d) is the speech center of the brain.
e) is the site of long-term memory storage.
74. Motivation and forethought are localized in the

a) prefrontal lobe.
b) general interpretive area.
c) Wernicke's area.
d) temporal lobe.
e) Broca's area.
75. There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves.

a) 10
b) 31
c) 2
d) 6
e) 12
76. The only cranial nerves that are attached to the cerebrum are the ________ nerves.

a) olfactory
b) oculomotor
c) optic
d) trochlear
e) abducens
77. The cranial nerves that are involved in controlling eye movements are

a) III, IV, and VI.
b) II and VI.
c) II, III, and IV.
d) III and V.
e) I, II, and III.
78. The cranial nerve that has three branches is the

a) vagus.
b) facial.
c) glossopharyngeal.
d) abducens.
e) trigeminal.
79. Sensory innervation of the lower gums, teeth, lips, palate and part of the tongue is by way of the ________ nerve.

a) glossopharyngeal
b) opthalmic branch of the trigeminal
c) mandibular branch of the trigeminal
d) hypoglossal
e) maxillary branch of the trigeminal
80. Motor innervation of the voluntary swallowing muscles and intrinsic laryngeal muscles is by way of the ________ nerve.

a) abducens
b) spinal accessory
c) vagus
d) hypoglossal
e) vestibulocochlear
81. Damage to which of the following cranial nerves could result in death?

a) glossopharyngeal
b) abducens
c) hypoglossal
d) facial
e) vagus
82. A cranial reflex that is often used to test the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is the ________ reflex.

a) corneal
b) vestibulo-ocular
c) direct light
d) tympanic
e) auditory
83. The tympanic reflex

a) produces rapid blinking when something comes into contact with the cornea.
b) protects the inner ear from loud noises.
c) triggers somatic motor responses to sudden noises .
d) causes the pupil of the eye to constrict when subjected to a bright light.
e) causes the eyes to move in the opposite direction of a rotational movement of the head.
84. When compared to the spinal cord, the arrangement of white and gray matter in the medulla is similar, yet there are also significant differences. These differences include all of the following, except

a) the absence of distinct regions of gray matter.
b) tracts crossing, merging, and branching.
c) tracts passing through nuclei.
d) the arrangement of tracts and nuclei.
e) a lack of clear functional organization of the nuclei.
85. Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect

a) sight.
b) hearing.
c) voluntary motor activity.
d) perception of pain.
e) both A and C
86. Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to

a) understand written words.
b) understand spoken language.
c) sense the texture of silk.
d) clearly see visual images.
e) use scissors to cut out a picture.
87. Damage to the extrapyramidal system would lead to

a) loss of sight.
b) inability to sense pain.
c) difficulty in maintaining balance.
d) loss of hearing.
e) inability to swallow.
88. A drug that is known to block pain sensations is found to function at the level of the diencephalon. This drug probably interacts with neurons in the

a) epithalamus.
b) ventral nuclei of the thalamus.
c) medial nuclei of the thalamus.
d) hypothalamus.
e) pulvinar.
89. What symptom would you expect to see in a person who has sustained damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus?

a) an intense thirst
b) an inability to properly adjust body temperature
c) an insatiable appetite
d) an uncontrolled sex drive
e) production of a large volume of urine
90. The movement of the head in the direction of a loud noise is coordinated in the mesencephalon. Which nuclei are most likely involved in this process?

a) substantia nigra
b) superior colliculi
c) inferior colliculi
d) red nuclei
e) tectum
91. Damage to the superior colliculi of the mesencephalon would interfere with the ability to

a) voluntarily move the arm.
b) react to loud noises.
c) maintain proper posture.
d) express rage.
e) react the movement of a car with the eyes.
92. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe in a person whose descending tracts from the cerebral nuclei are damaged by a stroke?

a) muscle tremors
b) a blank, static facial expression
c) drooping eyelids
d) decerebrate rigidity
e) spasticity
93. Parkinson's disease is the result of

a) hyperactivity of the limbic system.
b) poor response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon.
c) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra.
d) inadequate amounts of dopamine from the neurons in the substantia nigra.
e) inadequate production of GABA by neurons in the cerebral nuclei.
94. Histological examination of some brain tissue reveals the presence of several large, highly branched Purkinje cells. This sample of tissue must have come from the

a) cerebral cortex.
b) cerebellar cortex.
c) pons.
d) medulla.
e) arbor vitae.
95. Impulses from proprioceptors in the limbs must pass through the ________ on their way to the ________.

a) nucleus cuneatus; cerebrum
b) olivary nucleus; cerebellum
c) nucleus cuneatus; cerebellum
d) olivary nucleus; cerebrum
e) nucleus gracilis; cerebrum
96. A tumor that blocks the interventricular foramen in the left cerebral hemisphere would

a) decrease the flow of cerebrospinal fluid into the spinal canal.
b) decrease the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
c) increase the production of cerebrospinal fluid.
d) result in a cerebrospinal fluid shunt to the right side.
e) result in hydrocephalus.
97. Compression of a cranial nerve by a tumor causes a loss of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected?

a) hypoglossal
b) trigeminal
c) glossopharyngeal
d) spinal accessory
e) vagus
98. Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve?

a) dysfunction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
b) loss of the sense of taste
c) inability to move the eye medially
d) lack of facial expression
e) numb feeling in the gums
99. Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many pyramid-shaped cells. This tissue probably came from the

a) nucleus gracilis.
b) motor cortex.
c) sensory cortex.
d) nucleus cuneatus.
e) red nucleus.
100. Some of the fibers that form the lateral spinothalamic tracts are damaged before they decussate at the medulla. This type of injury would affect

a) motor function on the opposite side from the damage.
b) sensory function on the same side as the damage.
c) sensory function on the opposite side from the damage.
d) motor function on the same side as the damage.
e) both B and D
101. Damage to a descending tract results in an inability to properly control the facial muscles. Which descending tract is affected?

a) corticospinal tract
b) reticulospinal tract
c) rubrospinal tract
d) corticobulbar tract
e) tectospinal tract
102. Increased production and release of acetylcholine by the neurons of the cerebral nuclei would result in

a) spastic, uncontrolled muscle contractions.
b) flaccid paralysis.
c) muscular atrophy.
d) decreased activity of upper motor neurons.
e) fewer action potentials along the corticospinal tracts.
103. Terry suffers from amnesia as the result of an automobile accident. What area of the brain is probably affected?

a) the amygdala
b) the thalamus
c) the putamen
d) the general interpretive area
e) the prefrontal lobe
104. A cerebrovascular accident occurs when

a) a descending tract in the spinal cord is severed.
b) the blood supply to a portion of the brain is cut off.
c) brain stem nuclei hypersecrete serotonin.
d) the prefrontal lobe is damaged.
e) the reticular activating system fails to function.
105. During a laboratory session electrodes are attached to the head of a volunteer in order to monitor her brain waves. Once she is comfortable, she is asked to solve a rather complex riddle. The longer she struggles with the problem, the more the class begins to snicker and laugh. What type of brain waves would you expect to observe under these conditions?

a) delta waves
b) gamma waves
c) alpha waves
d) beta waves
e) theta waves
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